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Steve Krulick <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message news:<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>... > Rep. Boudinot said, "What dependence can be placed in men who > are conscientious in this respect? Or what justice can there be > in compelling them to bear arms, when, if they are honest men > they would rather die than use them." > > By the way, if there is STILL any question about EXACTLY WHAT > "bear arms" means, READ that again: Yes Steve, read it again. > "what justice can there be in compelling them to bear arms" Whoops, you left out,"...would rather die than use them." > Compelling them to bear arms! There is no other way to read that > phrase EXCEPT as "compelling them to possibly use firearms to > kill while serving in the militia"! Yes....to "use them". Of course, arms are rather hard to "use" if not being bourne. > Not "compelling them to > 'carry a gun' on their person"... why would Congress want to > compel ANYONE to carry a gun? Need MORE proof?: So they could "use them" ? > "The words 'in person' were added after the word 'arms,' (No > person religiously scrupulous shall be compelled to bear arms IN > PERSON), and the amendment was adopted." Simple explanation for that: If they had said "No people religiously scrupulous...", then that could be taken as only a group of people could claim religious exemption, not just an individual person. ta tah...
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