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Bill Smith <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message news:<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>...
Revisionist historians like to tell us it preserves the State's power to maintain a militia. Why doesn't it say;
"A well regulated militia, being necessary to the security of a free state, the power if the several States to establish and maintain a militia shall not be infringed."
Perhaps because it was the People (white males... etc) that owned the guns... not the states.
The Constitution's purpose is to grant certain powers to the
government not grant rights to the people.
Please show me where any of the founders meant that the right to keep and bear arms was meant to be exclusively within the context of a militia. I think they might be astonished at the suggestion.
I have NEVER said this. I have consistently said that I believed the 2ed recognized state rights to control arms if they wished... say to slaves... but no such controls could interfere with the operation of the militia. I have also said that I believe the right to bear arms is in the ninth to the extent the federal or state governments don't restrict rights per the 10th. Since I've done more reading I believe that the First Congress intended the well-regulated militia to be a counterweight to a standing army should one ever be created. That's a pretty well established historical argument. We see in Federalist 46 and the House debates on the second amendment for example.
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