
www.Usenet.com
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |
On Sat, 04 Oct 2003 16:08:13 GMT, Robert H. Risch <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >On Sat, 04 Oct 2003 08:44:38 -0700, Jon Beaver <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > >>On Sat, 4 Oct 2003 11:00:40 -0400, "Larry Smith" >><[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >> >>> >>>"Robert H. Risch" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message >>>news:[EMAIL PROTECTED] >>>> On Sat, 04 Oct 2003 14:01:46 GMT, John Husvar >>>> <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >>> [...] >>>> 1. The defendant can be tried by the same party that tried him in the >>>> first place, if they can find another statute covering the same >>>> criminal behavior but needing the proof of at least one different fact >>>> in order to establish guilt. >>>> >>>> 2. Another state >>> >>>Huh? Give examples. I've never heard of this one before. >> >>I was about to jump him on this too, but I can conceive of an act that >>has effects in more than one state that could be regarded as an act in >>either state. Shooting across a state line. Interstate telephone >>calls. >> >>- Jon Beaver > >The sum total of what I know is in: > >http://www.lectlaw.com/def/d075.htm > >I certainly can't supply an example where a virtually identical >statute was prosecuted by two different states. However it seems >possible by: > >"However, stretching the bounds of logic, the courts have decided that >since the state and federal governments are separate sovereigns and >therefore successive prosecutions based on the same underlying conduct >do not violate the Double Jeopardy Clause if the prosecutions are >brought by separate sovereigns. See, e.g., U.S. v. Koon, 34 F.3d 1416, >1438 (9th Cir.'94)". > >If the state and federal government are seperate sovereigns, why >aren't two individual states? They are. - Jon Beaver
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |