
www.Usenet.com
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |
On Fri, 28 Nov 2003 07:14:54 GMT, ipse dixit <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
On Thu, 27 Nov 2003 17:14:43 -0800, "Dutch" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
If (1) and (4) are true, we experienced a loss prior to being born because life is a benefit, but (2) says we cannot experience a loss prior to being born, so (1), (2), and (4) amount to a contradiction because they cannot all be true. But, if (1) and (2) are true, (4) would be false, meaning life is not a benefit. This proves that the original conclusion (3) follows from (1) and (2), and is a valid conclusion from those premises. If you disagree with (3) you must also find a fault in one of the premises.
You call that convoluted mess logic?
It's miles beyond your capabilities to understand and a whole light year beyond your capabilities to produce anything similar in refutation to Harrison's
argument, which is why you've had to rely on Jon's
lead all this time,
Ball relys on insisting that nothing has ever benefitted from anything,
but nevertheless, it's a perfect
piece of deductive logic to prove that life itself is not a benefit.
It is not.
It's bullshit, and totally dependant on your
absurd insistance that in order for something to be a benefit, the beneficiary must have suffered a loss
prior to obtaining it.
Try to offer a valid argument against it if you can, or are you only capable of announcing
it's wrong without being able to say why?
If you're referring to life being a benefit, none of you will be able to say why,
because it is a benefit.
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |