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Well, I don't understand it - Here is the best I can figure. On Wed, 03 Dec 2003 11:33:09 +0900, James K. <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > This question is reposted since there was no answer, slightly > including one more point. > > On Fri, 28 Nov 2003 19:29:37 +0900, "James K." > <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > >Tell me the pdf of bigger one in two pigs, if we assume the pdf of each > >pig's weight is all Gaussian pdf with same mean (m) and variance (s^2). The > >weight value of bigger one is denoted by > > > > [EQ-1] w >= w1 >= w2, > > > >where w1 and w2 are the weights of two pigs, respectively. > > > >Base on the assumption, we have > > [EQ-2] E[w1] = E[w2] = m, No. Once you have identified w1 as the larger of two sampled values, it does not have the same expected value. Otherwise, you would say the "maximum of a set" , always, still has the same expected value as the original mean. [ snip, rest] Since the difference of the two i.i.d. normal, sampled values will be normal, the absolute value of the difference must be a normal that is folded at zero. Right? Squared differences are easier.... -- Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html "Taxes are the price we pay for civilization."
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