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In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, David C. Ullrich <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >On 3 Dec 2003 09:06:36 GMT, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Robert Israel) wrote: >>In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, >>billy d. <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >>>f:R-->R differentiable, continuous derivative, and f(a)=a for some a >>>in R. >>>if |f'(a)|<1, then the sequence x_n=f(x_n-1) converges to a when x_0 >>>is sufficiently close to a. >>>if |f'(a)|>1, then there exists c_0>0 s.t. for all x_0=/=a, >>>|x_N-a|>c_0 for some positive integer N. >>>the first part was coming along nicely. it seems that i am close to >>>showing that f is a contraction from [a-d,a+d] for some d>0. >>Not true. >Counterexample? It seems true to me - I hesitate to post what >seems like the easy proof since we're just giving hints. >Possibly I'm being stupid again (or possibly you missed >the fact that f is _continuously_ differentiable?) Oops, yes of course I missed that the derivative is continuous (which is not necessary for the result). Robert Israel [EMAIL PROTECTED] Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2
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