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In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>,
"Steven Rossi" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Dear Math experts,
>
> How can I prove this?
>
> Suppose that {X_i : 1 <= i < infinity} is a sequence of independent random
> variables with the standard normal distribution. Let S_n = X_1 + X_2 + ...
> + X_n and let
> Z_n = exp(a*S_n - bn)
S_n has the normal distribution with mean 0 and variance n.
Therefore,
E[Z_n] = exp(a^2*n/2 - bn),
and more generally,
E[(Z_n)^p] = exp(a^2p^2*n/2 - bpn).
> Show that Z_n ---> 0 with probability 1 if and only if b > 0, and show that
> for p >=1 we have E[(Z_n)^p] ---> 0 if and only if p < 2b/a
It should now be clear that E[(Z_n)^p) --> 0 if and only if
a^2p < 2b.
Also, that Z_n --> 0 w.p. 1 if and only if a^2 < 2b.
--
A.
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