
www.Usenet.com
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |
>>>And it occured to me today to wonder which he was referring to. Was much >>>of a distinction made in Aristotle's day between velocity and >>>acceleration? >> >>Of course not! The concept of acceleration would have been quite outside >>of the mindset of that time. In particular, you could only consider >>ratios of like things, eg. lengths and lengths, times and times. >>Doing even a velocity (ratio of length and time) was stretching >>things. Usually for 'constant velocity' they said something about >>the ratio of the lengths traveled and the ratio of the times taken >>being equal. >> >>It wasn't really until Oresme in the 14th century that even constant >>acceleration was thought about. And Oresme was way ahead of his time. >Looking back from the 21st century, that seems strange. Clearly states of >motion change. That must be one of those paradigm things. They could >determine how far something goes, and how much time it took, and the thing >that gets there first went faster. And they were aware of that, of course. But they had no mathematical way of thinking about it. Remember that ratios were *not fractions* for these people. They could talk about equal ratios, but did not consider ratios to be numbers. Furthermore, the ratio of say, an area to a length was just not allowed, let alone a ratio of a length to a time. It really was a major advance to be able to think about velocity as a separate thing and as a ratio. --Dan Grubb
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |