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>Clearly the experiment was not done, for it it was the -Physics- of >Aristotle would not have said what it said. >So we ask why wasn't the experiment or something like it done? >Possible reasons: >1. Aristotle was stupid. But I reject this. Aristotles work on logic and >categories suggest he is a sophisticated and intelligent man Definitely >2. It never occurred to Aristotle to do the experiment. This is in line >with my assumption that the Greeks were too easily swayed by the logic >of their own arguments. This is quite possibly true. The Greeks were very sceptical of sensory evidence since they knew of such things as optical illusions, etc. Because of this, the philosophers were biased toward abstract argument and away from demonstrations. THey did do demonstrations, however. >3. He did the experiment but he rejected it as a refutation of his >general principle. This is possible for folks who put principles before >facts. Today we call them lawyers. Doubtful for Aristotle. >4. Perhaps a later (corrected) version of -The Physics- was made but it >did not survive. This is the most charitable assumption. However there >is no evidence for it. I have heard that he *did* do some experiments, but he did them by letting things fall in water to slow the motion. If you consider terminal velicities, this leads to his version of how objects fall. The difficulty is that terminal velocities are not reached very quickly in the air. --Dan Grubb
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