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On Sat, 04 Oct 2003 21:09:09 GMT, in alt.astrology, <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >Bob Officer wrote: > >> On Fri, 03 Oct 2003 00:52:43 GMT, in alt.astrology, Kali >> <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >> >> >> >Yeah, I appreciated his acting. I loved the terminator >> >films. But I had no idea what he was like off stage. >> >> Just remember a actor is nothing more than a professional liar. He >> uses a script and his goal is to convince you he is someone or >> something he is not. >> >> Do we really need to elect another figurehead actor reading scripted >> replies to questions? Why elect a professional liar, when we can have >> a piss poor liars we already have elected to office. >> >> >: Under pressure, this guy reverts to a Nazi. >> > >> >Godwin invoked. Thread over. >> >> Kali you have to understand Arnold's father was a Nazi Party member >> of chief of police in his town. He was raised in a strict household >> and remember the apple doesn't fall from the tree. >> >> It is possible to make a reference in the case to Nazi's and not have >> Godwin invoked. >> >Here's a statement of Godwin's Law: > >>Godwin's Law of Nazi Analogies: As an online discussion grows >>longer, the probability of a comparison involving Nazis or >>Hitler approaches one. > >There's a lot I don't understand about this "Law", such as: > >1. Who is Godwin? The man that made the observation. The corollary to godwin's law is also shown to be true by observation. >2. Why does Godwin get to write "Laws"? The law is an observation... Just as the disappearance of one kook from a groups always creates a vacuum which is filled by another kook appearing. (I forget who actually made this (stitch or Matt Kreible?) observation but in the years reading and watching alt.astrology, alt.paranormal, alt.fan.art-bell, sci.astro and sci.skeptic, I have found it to be true.) >3. What is the signifcance of this "Law"? It is observed to be a trvth. Sort of like the Law of Gravity. >3. Why am I supposed to care about Godwin-feathers and his "Law"? Because it means the usefulness of the discussion is over. It has become degenerate. >3. Why does the "invocation" of this "Law" put an end to a thread or >have any other effect whatsoever? General agreement of others. Anyone can continue if they so wish... >4. Kali and Ross have "invoked" this "Law" in short threads. How does >that fulfill the condition "As an online discussion grows longer, ..." >This condition means that if I *start* a thread with a mention of Nazis, >it invalidates the "Law" off the top. It indicates the usefulness of the discussion is over. >5. Clearly Godwin has a thing about Nazis. Why is it ethical, sane, >human, or right to suppress the discussion of what interests you, by >inventing a "Law" about it? And why do ancient Usenet nerds make a >profession of letting Godwin get away with this? Because Godwin made a useful observation. No one is suppressing the discussion. They are choosing not to participate any longer. There are ways to discuss Hilter and Nazis without having Godwin invoked. There is a FAQ about Godwin's around usenet someplace. Check in news.answers. DYOHW for once, please. -- Bob Officer "So in other words, you make your web page into a fantasy land where you get to have the last word. No wonder USENET's freedom disturbs you so much." Matt Krieble's ,Usenet user's,(Dec,1999) reply to the net abuser BruDanKettler
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