Re: Vedic Indo-Aryans North of the Black Sea ~2000 BC!

> > > > > "M. Ranjit Mathews" wrote:
> > > > > > I didn't ask where FinnoUgric languages came from; I asked where
> > > > > > ProtoFinnoUgric came from. 

>>>>Seppo Renfors wrote:
> > > > > THAT is far, far worse! It is one that cannot be answered. It requires
> > > > > accepting erroneous preconditions as being "true" to deal with it in
> > > > > any other way than I am doing now.
> > > It is your theory, not mine! I repeat for the third time, it is
> > > NONSENSE and I reject the NONSENSE.

>>>"M. Ranjit Mathews" wrote:
>>That related languages sprang from a protoLanguage is an axiom to 
linguists ...
>>... whereas YOUR theory appears to be that they sprouted spontaneously
>>like mushrooms.

Kevin Jones wrote:
> I think he's going to continue to evade the question indefinitely.

Sigh; that leaves us with "it is erroneous to presume that related 
languages sprang from a protoLanguage ... and it's erroneous BECAUSE 
it's nonsense to Seppo".

> I'd guess that doesn't have any theory of his own to offer, which is why he can't and
> won't answer your question.

Paradoxically, in the following, Seppo does presume that a protoLanguage 
"Proto-Aryan, the root for Indo-Aryan languages" gave rise to the 
related languages "Pali, Prakit, Sanskrit and Vedic". Perhaps he can 
explain why his "protoAryan" is not erroneous nonsense if others' 
protoFinnoUgric is erroneous nonsense or conversely, why others' 
protoFinnoUgric makes no sense to him if his "protoAryan" does make 
sense to him.

From: Seppo Renfors ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
Subject: Re: Aryan Invasion re-interpretation.
Date: 2002-07-06 20:31:47 PST
Sure the people who arrived from the North (somewhere from
the steppes to the North and East of the Aral Sea) did speak
Proto-Aryan, the root for Indo-Aryan languages. Of which there were a
number - eg Pali, Prakrit, Sanskrit, Vedic.