Re: Vedic Indo-Aryans North of the Black Sea ~2000 BC!

"M. Ranjit Mathews" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message
news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
> Seppo Renfors wrote:
> >
> > "M. Ranjit Mathews" wrote:
> >
> >>Seppo Renfors wrote:
> >>
> >>>"M. Ranjit Mathews" wrote:
> >>
> >>>>I didn't ask where FinnoUgric languages came from; I asked where
> >>>>ProtoFinnoUgric came from. Actually, the question would have been
better
> >>>>phrased as, "Do you have an alternate theory as to where
protoFinnoUgric
> >>>>and protoSamoyed came from, that they gained their observed
similarities?".
> >>>
> >>>THAT is far, far worse! It is one that cannot be answered. It requires
> >>>accepting erroneous preconditions as being "true" to deal with it in
> >>>any other way than I am doing now.
> >>
> >>"Erroneous" because related languages couldn't have sprung from a
> >>protoLanguage ...
>
> That related languages sprang from a protoLanguage is an axiom to
> linguists ...
>
> >>but must have sprouted spontaneously like mushrooms?
>
> ... whereas YOUR theory appears to be that they sprouted spontaneously
> like mushrooms.
>
> > It is your theory, not mine! I repeat for the third time, it is
> > NONSENSE and I reject the NONSENSE.

I think he's going to continue to evade the question indefinitely. I'd guess
that doesn't have any theory of his own to offer, which is why he can't and
won't answer your question.

Kevin