Re: tuning question

On 2 Dec 2003 22:50:07 -0800, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Dale) wrote:

>I'm researching a story, and have yet another question needing an
>expert's answer (or at least someone more informed than I):
>
>Could someone ear-trained to meantone tunings (say 1630-ish), with
>access to a modern even-temper tuned scale (such as a properly tuned
>piano--using a modern tuning, not a well-temper scheme)...given that,
>could a well-temper tuning scheme be derived from the two?  (Hopefully
>that made sense)
>
It is hard to imagine that situation. Much more likely is a situation
where someone wants to play a piece that has a pair of enharmonics,
say C# and Db, but has no split key to accommodate.

So he fudges the note that has to pass for both. He plays the piece,
and people may grumble, but they don't tar and feather him.

So, next time he wants an A#, and fudges the Bb key. He still is not
lynched (maybe everyone is asleep).

Maybe he does the same with all 5 accidentals, and notices that some
of the fifths are smoother than meantone.

and so on





Rodney Myrvaagnes                 J36 Gjo/a

"That idiot Leibniz, who wants to teach me about the infinitesimally small! Has he 
therefore forgotten that I am the wife of Frederick I? How can he imagine that I am 
unacquainted with my own husband?"