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Hi all,
How should the following hands be bid, playing 2/1? (Teams, all vul.)
AQxx AKJxx A10x J
KJx xx Q9x AKxxx
We bid: 1H-2C*-2S**-2NT-3D-3NT. 2C is 3-way, either a GF balanced, a GF in clubs or a hand with 3-crd support for hearts. For the problem you can assume that 2C is a normal 2/1-GF. 2S shows extras (15+) in my partnership. Obviously, 3NT is a fine contract. Slam is not very good. So, we bid to the right contract, but there are a few issues. A few questions on 2/1 therefore:
1) What does 2NT show in 2/1? A diamond stopper?
2) Can there be a 4crd diamond in responder's hand if he bids 2NT? Or should he bid 3D with that? Or does that show an unbalanced hand with at least 5 clubs?
3) Range problems: what about a fitting 16 opposite 16? Suppose responder has KJx,Qx,Kxx,Axxxx. Now you have a laydown 6NT. How should it be bid? Does 3NT in the above auction show a minimum hand, something in the range of (12)13-15? Or can it be stronger?
4) What should opener bid if he is 4-5-2-2?
5) If 3D could be a fragment and 2NT could contain a 4crd diamond, how are you going to find a fit there? For example, suppose opener holds AQxx,AKJxx,A10xx and responder has KJx,Qx,KQxx,Axxx. How are you going to bid the good grand (possibly in hearts) after 1H-2C-2S-2NT-3D when 3D could merely be a fragment? Or should 3D always be natural? Or should responder bid 3D instead of 2NT?
In short, I guess I need some guiding principles as to what opener's 3rd round suit rebids mean.
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