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"Keith Willshaw" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message news:[EMAIL PROTECTED] > > "D. Patterson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message > news:[EMAIL PROTECTED] > > > > > > The stated justification for the indiscriminate RAF bombing raids in > > 1944-1945 was retaliation for the continuing indiscriminate and > terrorizing > > bombardment of civilian targets in Britain by German bombers and > > particularly by the German V-1 and V-2 missiles. > > > > No it wasnt, the stated justification was the destruction of the German > ability to wage war. In fact targetting in 1944/45 was split between > attacks on German Industrial centres such as the Ruhr, the oil industry, > military targets and infrastructure. [...] Yes, retaliation was a stated purpose of the indiscriminate aspect of the RAF air raids in 1944-1945. It was, of course, not the only such stated purpose nor the primary purpose of such air raids. As you have correctly noted, there were essential military purposes to serve as well. Nonetheless, retaliation was also one such stated purpose. Furthermore, this retaliation was also intended to serve as a warning and deterrent against any further escalation of the terrorism by the Germans with such indiscriminate weapons of mass destruction as biological and chemical warfare weaponry. The implied threat was any use of weapons of mass destruction by the German armed forces could be and would be cause for massive retaliation in kind by the Allied air forces, just as the lesser German indiscriminate air bombardment campaigns were retaliated in kind with far more massive discriminate and indiscriminate air bombardments by the Allied air forces.
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