Re: Who were the Aryans?

In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, Dorothy J Heydt 
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> Maybe the point is made in other posts.  The term "Aryan" is not
> used any more even in its strict sense for "Indo-Iranian", in
> part because the Hitlerites used it 

Um, maybe you haven't gotten around to telling the relevant people
this?

"Indo-Aryan" remains a perfectly normal technical term for those
languages in the Indo-Iranian group that are more similar to Sanskrit
than to Persian or to Nuristani.  I'll happily produce multiple cites
if you wish.  It never was a term equivalent to "Indo-Iranian", and
perhaps that's why you're not seeing it used for that now?

I don't know to what extent "Arya" or "Aryan" has fallen out of 
favour in Iran, India, and points in between, but what I've seen
incidentally out of India leaves me profoundly unconvinced that 
it's entirely eclipsed.

The "Four Noble Truths" of Buddhism are, after all, originally the
"Four Aryan Truths".  No joke.

Joe Bernstein

-- 
Joe Bernstein, writer                                  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
<http://www.panix.com/~josephb/>