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Re: Hymn tunes





Dave Singer wrote:
In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>,
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Choraltalk Gateway) wrote:


I think someone objected to changing words used with the hymn tunes. The reason
English hymn tunes have names is because they are usually intended to be used
with any words that fit.


I'm not sure I agree that this is a general rule. Perhaps the majority of tunes are general-purpose, but actually a fair number of tunes were written with particular texts in mind. Indeed, their names often reflect that intended association ("Darwall's 148th" was originally associated with a metrical version of the 148th psalm, for example; "Jerusalem" has a clear link to Blake's poem; "Love Unknown" is the theme of the associated text.)

I for one am not always comfortable when tunes are taken but matched to new words, when they were intentionally matched to specific words on composition. (I realize that I am not entirely aligned with current practice, particularly in the Episcopal Church in the USA.)

Do know if it was the Brady & Tate or the Sternhold and Hopkins version of Psalm 148 that Darwell had it mind? Both are the same meter and both pre-date the composition of the music. http://www.cgmusic.com/workshop/psametre_frame.htm The words used with Darwell's 148th in both the 1940 and 1982 hymnal are not either, but rather "Ye holy angels bright." "Jerusalem" is a good tune but we can hardly sing those words in a church service in the U.S. Fortunatly Carl Daw has written new words for to go with it in the 1982 hymnal.


I never said a composer didn't have certain words in mind when writing a tune. I'll also say that some tune/text pairings are so strong that I would not want to mess with them.

I do question how many of these composers felt that only those words should be used, given the common English practice of separate composition of words & music. No matter how they felt, new words have been paired or written for the words to suit worship purposes. One would have to do a great deal of research to determine if the 1940, or any other hymnal, is using the words a composer had in mind.

The church would loose a lot of good music if words were never changed. Some hymns express theologies that are no longer deemed acceptable & we would loose the music along with the words if your rule was enforced. I would use "Once to every man and nation" with Ton-y-Botel, except that those aren't the original words for the tune either.

A performing choir may also want to only perform music with lyrics in original languages. This is not the case for hymnals. They are full of Welsh, German, Swedish, etc. compositions with words that may or may not be translations of the original words.

What about the composer who writes music for a hymn that already has a perfectly good tune? Why should they do that any more than someone inspired by a tune writing new words? Do you sing "All hail the power of Jesus name" to Miles Lane and nothing else?




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