
www.Usenet.com
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |
"Free Spirit" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message news:[EMAIL PROTECTED] > in article [EMAIL PROTECTED], Adrian Bailey at > [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote on 11/28/03 10:32 AM: > > > "Free Spirit" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message > > news:[EMAIL PROTECTED] > >> 1. a mean hand at something means be good at something > >> > >> What is the difference in the following sentences? > >> a. She is a mean hand at carpentry. > >> b. She has a mean hand at carpentry. > > > > (b) is wrong, imo. > > Thanks a lot, Adrian. > > So, a mean hand doesn't belong to the group like, a tin ear, a green thumb > and two left feet, in which, to have is used instead of to be. For example, > > She/he has a green thumb/tin ear/two left feet. > > > >> 2. What is the difference between one-on-one and one-to-one? > > > > A competition can be one-on-one. > > A conversation can be one-to-one. > > How about tutoring? Should one-on-one or one-to-one be used? > > Zoe There's often no logic to idiom, nor (in my view) is there really a right or wrong in a large, moral sense. What is acceptable is what is conventional; and what is conventional is what has been repeated (for any number of reasons) by a given group of speakers and writers. Why does one sentence sound better than another? Only because it is recognized in some way by a native speaker. When someone says that it "sounds right to me," the native speaker usually means that he or she has heard it and remembers or recognizes it, not necessarily because there is some arcane logic at work. The key is iteration, not morality or logic. M.
| <-- __Chronological__ --> | <-- __Thread__ --> |